Full gradient versus stochastic gradient

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Problem

For losses $\ell_1(w)=(w-1)^2$ and $\ell_2(w)=(w+1)^2$ , compute the full empirical gradient at $w=2$ and each per-example gradient. Explain why an unbiased uniformly sampled stochastic gradient can still have variance.

Reveal answer or reference solution

The per-example gradients are $2$ and $6$ . The mean, or full, gradient is $4$ . A uniformly sampled per-example gradient has expectation $4$ but takes values $2$ or $6$ , so it has nonzero variance.

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Appears in

Gradient Descent